draft of 10-20-04
PHIL 100: Socrates and Plato
Fall 2004; David O. Brink
Handout #5: Hedonistic Answers to Socratic Questions
in Plato's Protagoras
Protagoras is a prominent sophist who promises to teach virtue but who
famously says that "a man is the measure of all things, of those that are,
of how they are, and of those that are not, of how they are not" and that
"as things appear to each of us, so they are" (Theaetetus 152a).
An important question is whether Protagorean relativism is compatible with
the sort of expertise to which Protagoras lays claim. This is the
first of three main topics in the Protagoras.
Topic #1: CAN VIRTUE BE TAUGHT?
The Protagoras both begins and ends on the subject of the teachability
of virtue. Socrates and Protagoras are represented as each changing
his mind, but as disagreeing initially and subsequently. Initially,
Socrates appears skeptical whether virtue can be taught (319a-320c), but
later argues that it can (361a-c). Protagoras's situation is reversed;
he begins by defending the teachability of virtue and ends by questioning
whether it can be taught. It's not surprising that Protagoras would
begin by claiming that virtue is teachable, because teaching virtue is
his professed vocation. And it's not surprising if Socrates should
doubt that Protagoras can claim to teach virtue. For Protagorean
relativism appears to undermine the sort of objectivity and expertise required
if the sophists are to justify their claim to be especially good teachers
of virtue. What would be more surprising is if Socrates himself thought
virtue could not be taught. For his inquiries and his craft analogy
suggest that that is precisely what he is searching for. Of course,
he might think that virtue is not in fact taught. After all,
teaching virtue requires moral knowledge, which requires an ability to
specify the form of the virtues, and so far his attempts to find someone
who can satisfy these conditions have been unsuccessful. But that
virtue is not yet taught, does not entail that it cannot be taught.
Socrates offers two grounds for skepticism about the teachability of
virtue.
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On moral and political matters the Athenians let everyone speak and do
not appeal to experts (319b4-e1).
-
Those who are acknowledged to be good citizens produce offspring who are
not virtuous (319e1-320b4).
Protagoras replies in the Great Speech (320c9-322d6) and directly (322d6-328d3).
-
All Athenians are experts or knowledgeable.
-
Justice (virtue) is a necessary condition of political community (323a1-4,
324d8-325a3).
-
Native affective and cognitive differences enable some to benefit more
from training in virtue than others (327b8-c4).
-
The Athenians' belief that virtue can be taught is evidenced by their practices
of punishment (323d6-324d1) and their concern with private training in
virtue (325ac5-326e5).
Protagoras's first two claims address Socrates's first ground for skepticism,
and his third claim addresses Socrates's second ground for skepticism.
But it's not clear that Protagoras's replies are mutually consistent.
In particular, it's not clear if (3) is compatible with (1) and (2).
Moreover, we might wonder whether the virtue of justice is necessary for
community. Perhaps social stability requires some fairly general
but minimal conformity with norms of non-aggression and cooperation, but
this seems compatible with selective but significant injustice. Especially
if we distinguish between genuine justice and mere conformity with the
requirements of justice, we might wonder whether social stability really
presupposes justice.
TOPIC #2: THE UNITY OF THE VIRTUES
At 392b5 there is a fairly abrupt shift to the topic of the relationship
among the virtues. But this new topic is connected with the old one
so long as the prospects for teaching virtue depend upon the nature of
virtue, especially its cognitive aspects. Socrates asks Protagoras to choose
between two conceptions of the relationship among the virtues (329c6-d1).
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The various virtues stand to virtue as parts stand to the wholes of which
they are parts.
-
The various virtue terms all name the same thing.
Protagoras prefers the part-whole conception to the unity thesis (329d3-4).
Socrates then offers him a choice between two part whole analogies (329d).
-
(1a) The face analogy
-
(1b) The lump of gold analogy
It's an interesting question what the lump of gold analogy would imply
about the virtues. In some ways, it would be close to unity, inasmuch
as it might imply that the virtues (the smaller lumps of gold) are qualitatively
identical. Yet it would apparently still imply that they are numerically
distinct. In any case, the debate centers instead on the choice between
(1a) and (2). Protagoras opts for the face analogy (1a) (329e1-2)
and explicitly denies inseparability, claiming that people can be courageous
without having the other virtues (329e5-6, 349d3-8). Socrates begins
to examine Protagoras's claims, apparently with the aim of defending inseparability
and unity.
Socrates's "argument from opposites" is meant to establish that the
virtues other than courage (wisdom, good sense, justice, and holiness or
piety) are either identical or very similar (330a1-334a3, 349d3-5).
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The opposite of wisdom is folly (332a4-6).
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The opposite of good sense is folly (332e4-5).
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Properties are distinct iff they have distinct opposites (332c3-8).
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Hence, wisdom = good sense (333b4-5).
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The opposite of justice is folly (333b7-334a2).
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Hence, justice = wisdom = good sense.
Is (5) plausible if "folly" is understood in the same prudential way that
makes (1) and (2) plausible? Is injustice always imprudent?
This question is addressed by Glaucon and Adeimantus in Republic
ii.
Rightly or wrongly, Protagoras accepts this argument. Yet he resists
inseparability and unity by resisting this cognitive conception for the
virtue of courage. At Socrates's suggestion he offers a purely noncognitive
definition of courage as daring (349e2). At this point, Socrates
relies on his argument, familiar from the Laches (192cd), that knowledge
is necessary for virtue (349e1-350c5). As in the Laches, Socrates
takes this argument to establish a purely cognitive conception of courage
(350c). However, Protagoras does not let Socrates get away this move
here. He rightly responds that the argument establishes only that
courage requires a cognitive component, not that courage just is wisdom
(350c-351b). Protagoras insists on a noncognitive component, as well
as a cognitive component (351a1-b3), the sort of affective or conative
component for which Protagorean moral training would be appropriate (325c-326e).
Here, Plato seems to register a shortcoming in the argument of the Laches.
TOPIC #3: KSV AND THE DENIAL OF AKRASIA
At 351b the discussion makes another abrupt transition to the topic
of hedonism and ultimately to a discussion of akrasia or weakness
of will. But, again, there is continuity of concern if the prospects
for the unity of the virtues depends on the adequacy of a purely cognitive
account of virtue, which itself depends upon the possibility of akrasia.
Socrates can defend a cognitive account of the virtues, unity, and the
sufficiency of knowledge for virtue (KSV) by denying the possibility of
akrasia.
-
Akrasia occurs when A knows (or believes) that some action y is all things
considered (and not just morally) better than some alternative action x,
it is in A's power and he has the opportunity to perform either x or y,
and he does x.
Socrates denies the possibility of akrasia by appeal to hedonism --
the
doctrine that pleasure is the only intrinsic good. He seems to suggest
that we do not in fact act against our knowledge of what is best, but instead
act out of ignorance about what is in fact best or most pleasurable.
Our miscalculation appears to be the result of the influence of proximate
pleasure (357de).
Hedonism is the thesis that pleasure is the good and pain evil.
Protagoras and the many initially deny hedonism (351c), asserting that
there are bad pleasures and good pains. Hedonism is Socrates's thesis
(351c4-5, e5, e10). But Socrates claims that their beliefs commit
them to hedonism (354c), inasmuch as bad pleasures are short-term pleasures
that cause more pain or less pleasure overall and good pains are short-term
pains that cause more pleasure or less pain overall.
How does hedonism support the Socxratic denial of akrasisa? Here
is one reconstruction of a central part of Socrates's argument.
-
Evaluative Hedonism: goodness = pleasantness (i.e. the general terms `goodness`
and `pleasantness` express the same property).
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If A intentionally does x rather than y, because he is overcome by the
F in x, then A believes x is more F than y.
-
Sometimes A knows (believes) x is worse than y but still chooses x, because
he is overcome by the pleasure in x (the many's claim).
-
Hence, sometimes A knows (believes) x is worse than y but still chooses
x, because he believes that x is more pleasant than y. (By 2 and
3)
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Hence, sometimes A knows (believes) that x is worse than y but still chooses
x, because he believes that x is better than y. (By 1 and 4)
Socrates's ultimate conclusion -- the denial that akrasia is possible --
is strongly counter-intuitive. Before accepting it, we might ask
whether his argument is sound and has the significance he supposes.
SO WHAT?
It is not uncommon to read the argument as offering a reductio ad absurdum
of the many's hypothesis that akrasia is possible. But this can't
be quite right, because the conclusion takes the forms of contradictory
beliefs, rather than an outright contradiction. The conclusion is
not
Only the second is a contradiction. However, the many's position
might be thought to be absurd in another sense if it they are committed
to inconsistent beliefs. Indeed, if one can only maintain inconsistent
beliefs through ignorance, this might still suggest that putative akrasia
really rests on ignorance.
OH YEAH?
Is the argument sound? One issue concerns its validity.
In many contexts, co-referential terms can be substituted for each other
without changing truth values. Would the truth of hedonism make the
substitution in (5) legitimate, or does the intentional context mean that
the substitution of co-referential terms is illicit? Does it matter
that hedonism is a property identity claim and not just the claim that
goodness and pleasantness are coextensive? Compare
(a) Spike drinks the whiskey in the glass because it is buzz
conferring.
(b) Spike drinks the whiskey in the glass because it rots his gut.
Substitution does not preserve truth value even if `this buzz conferring
stuff` and `this gut rotting stuff` have the same extension. One
reason that these co-extensive terms fail to be intersubstitutable is that
each co-extensive term has its extension in virtue of different properties
of members of the extension. This will not be true of general terms
that express the same property. Significantly, hedonism is a property
identity claim.
(c) Spike likes a hot bath.
(d) Spike likes a bath with mean kinetic molecular energy x.
Here the substitution seems ok, even if Spike would not assent to a sentence
expressing (d) because, say, he is ignorant of the fact that heat is mean
kinetic molecular energy. But what about the following pair?
(e) Spike believes his bath is hot.
(f) Spike believes his bath has mean kinetic molecular energy x.
Here the substitution does seem problematic, and this may seem to wreck
Socrates's argument. However, if the substitution failure depends
on the agent's ignorance -- in the case of Socrates's argument, ignorance
of hedonism -- this may vindicate Socrates's cognitive account after all.
Other questions concern the plausibility of the premises. One
obvious question concerns hedonism. Does Socrates really endorse
hedonism, or is the hedonist denial of akrasia merely ad hominem or ironical?
Here are some reasons to think that Socratic hedonism is authentic, not
ad hominem or ironic.
-
Hedonism is introduced as Socrates's thesis, not an explicit commitment
of his interlocutors or conventional Greek ethics.
-
Socrates needs hedonism if he is to have an argument for his otherwise
puzzling theses about the unity of the virtues, the cognitive account of
virtues, and the sufficiency of knowledge for virtue..
-
Hedonism promises to satisfy Socratic constraints on definition from the
Euthyphro;
it provides a decision procedure that eliminates disputed terms in the
definition of the virtues and identifies the property that makes something
good.
A different question concerns the assumption implicit in (2) and (3) that
all action reflects desires based on beliefs about what is best.
Call this thesis psychological eudaimonism. Is this
a reasonable assumption? Are all desires optimizing? Alternatively,
we might recognize non-optimizing desires in one of two ways.
-
completely good-independent desires
-
good-dependent but non-optimizing desires
If such desires exist and can influence action, then akrasia seems possible.
In fact, it is just here that the moral psychology of the Republic
(book iv) apparently disagrees with the psychological eudaimonism of the
Protagoras.
TEMPORAL BIAS
The argument we have been considering does attribute an error to putatively
akratic agents, but it does not need to invoke Socrates's actual diagnosis
of the error, viz. a miscalculation of the pleasurable and painful consequences
of an agent's options due to the temporal proximity of pleasures and pains
(356a-357e). Socrates suggests that the putative akrates suffers
from a temporal bias: the proximity of certain pleasures and pains leads
the agent to an inflated estimate of their value. On a diachronic
interpretation, the putative akrates toggles back and forth between a "cool"
and a "hot" judgment; however, at the time of action, he does not act contrary
to his optimizing desires. On a synchronic interpretation, the agent
holds both hot and cold judgments simultaneously.
Note that this argument is compatible with hedonism, but does not seem
to presuppose it; temporal proximity might distort our judgment of the
magnitude of goods, whether the goods are pleasure or something else.
AKRASIA AND UNITY
Socrates takes the denial of akrasia to support the sufficiency of
knowledge for virtue and to undermine Protagoras's reasons for resisting
the inseparability and unity of the virtues (358d5-). While the Protagorean
conception of courage, which recognizes independent affective or conative
components, would allow for akrasia, Socrates appeals to the denial of
akrasia to reject this conception and thereby support unity.
-
Courage is good (indeed, best).
-
Cowardice is being overcome by pleasure.
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Hedonism.
-
If A intentionally does x rather than y, because she is overcome by the
F in x, then A believes x is more F than y.
-
Sometimes A knows that y is courageous but chooses some action x that she
recognizes to be cowardly.
-
Hence, sometimes A knows that y is most pleasant, yet believes that x is
more pleasant than y.
-
Hence, (5) is false.
-
Hence, knowledge is sufficient for courage.
-
Hence, courage = knowledge of good and evil (i.e. knowledge of pleasure
and pain).
-
Hence (with 330a1-334a3, 349d3-5, 359a8-b1), the virtues are identical
(i.e. virtue = knowledge of pleasure and pain).
WELCOME AND UNWELCOME CONSEQUENCES OF HEDONISM
Some aspects of hedonism fit with other socratic commitments.
-
Hedonism plays a role in the denial of akrasia and, hence, in the defense
of a cognitive conception of courage, and, hence in a cognitive conception
of the virtues, and, hence, in the unity (and inseparability) of the virtues.
-
Hedonism promises to satisfy Socratic constraints on definition from the
Euthyphro.
It provides a decision procedure that eliminates disputed terms in the
definition of the virtues. The cognitive definition that virtue =
knowledge of good and evil, discussed in both the Laches and Charmides,
though perhaps true, would apparently not satisfy the decision procedure
requirement. Hedonism apparently does. Moreover, hedonism might
appear to provide a definition of virtue that supplies measuring procedures,
as the Euthyphro requires, because it looks like we could, at least
in principle, measure quantities of pleasure by measuring their duration
and intensity. Finally, hedonism, understood as the property identity
claim that the good = pleasure appears to satisfy the explanatory requirement,
for it purports to identify the property that makes something good.
-
Hedonism promises to satisfy the demand that the craft analogy appears
to make that virtue aim at some good or goal of virtue that can be specified
independently of virtuous acharacter or action, namely, pleasure.
Virtuous characters or actions are those that reliably produce (maximize)
net pleasure.
However, other aspects of hedonism appear to bring less welcome consequences.
-
Precisely because hedonism satisfies this aspect of the craft analogy so
well, it appears to support the claim that virtue is valuable as an instrumental
means to a form of happiness that is distinct from virtue. Both self-regarding
and other-regarding virtues are instrumental means to producing pleasure.
But, as we said before, it's hard to square this claim about the instrumental
value of virtue with the strong claims that virtue is both necessary and
sufficient for happiness. Instrumental means are usually neither
unique nor infallible ways of achieving their goals. The spoon trick
is an instrumental means to stopping the hiccups, but it is not an infallible
remedy and there are other remedies that work. But then the spoon
trick is neither necessary nor sufficient to stop the hiccups. Socrates
would have to claim that virtue is a highly unusual instrumental means
to happiness by claiming that it is a unique and infallible means for maximizing
net pleasure. This is hard to believe, especially of the other-regarding
virtues, such as justice.
-
Precisely because hedonism satisfies the craft analogy so well, it seems
to threaten the obsolescence of Socratic method (dialectic or the elenchus).
Dialectic can be necessary to identify pleasure as the conception of happiness
at which virtue aims. But once this is established, the practice
and teaching of virtue should just consist in working out the science of
pleasure and pain. But it's not clear that Socratic method is an
especially useful way of discovering this empirical information, just as
it would not appear to be an especially useful way of practicing or teaching
medicine or engineering. Perhaps this conclusion is otherwise acceptable,
but it is hard to with the essential role Socrates seems to assign the
elenchus in the best of all possible lives, viz. the examined life (Ap
38a). Doesn't socrates assume that dialectic has an important ongoing
role in a happy life?